Authentic Best resources for CISA Test Engine Practice Exam [Q368-Q383]

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Authentic Best resources for CISA Test Engine Practice Exam

[2021] CISA PDF Questions - Perfect Prospect To Go With PassLeader Practice Exam


How to book the CISA Exam

These are following steps for registering the CISA exam. Step 1: Pass the CISA examination within the last five years Step 2: Candidate has a minimum of five years of professional Information Systems Auditing (ISA) security work experience. Step3: Apply for CISA certification with $50 USD processing fee For more detail visit this link Apply for certification

For more detail visit this link Apply for certification


What Are Topics Tested in ISACA CISA Certification Exam?

The skills tested in the CISA exam include the following domains:

  • Information Systems Implementation, Development, and Acquisition (12%);
  • IT Governance and Management (17%);
  • Business Resilience and Operation of Information Systems (23%);
  • Auditing Process of Information System (21%);
  • Information Assets Protection (27%).

The first topic is split into two parts. Therefore, candidates will need to demonstrate their skills in planning and executing the IS auditing process. The first subsection includes questions that will test the candidates' ability to manage IS audit standards, and apply the ISACA code of ethics. Also, they will need to show their experience in developing business processes and choose the right types of controls to improve business performance. Besides, they should be experts in risk-based audit planning and develop the right types of audits and assessments. The second subtopic focuses on concepts like audit project management and sampling methodology. Also, examinees should know how to audit evidence collection techniques and work with data analytics, as well as reporting and communication techniques.

Within the second domain, examinees will need to ensure IT governance and IT management. This means that they should be proficient in developing a coherent IT strategy and governance. Also, they should develop IT-related frameworks, standards, procedures, and policies. Candidates should be skilled in ensuring a correct organizational structure and enterprise architecture. They should also show maturity in handling enterprise risk management features and comply with the laws and the organization's standards. When it comes to IT management, applicants should know how to manage IT resources and manage IT service provider acquisition. Last but not least, they should ensure correct monitoring and reporting of IT performance and focus on IT quality assurance and management.

The third chapter focuses on information systems acquisition and development. Candidates should demonstrate their ability to govern and manage projects as well as develop a correct business case and feasibility analysis. Examinees will be required to answer questions related to system development methodologies and control design and identification features. The second subtopic included in this section handles Information Systems implementation. Thus, applicants will need to master testing methodologies and know how to configure and release the right management tools. Candidates should also focus on infrastructure deployment, data conversion, and system migration. The post-implementation review is also an important topic included here.

The fourth chapter concentrates on business resilience and information systems operations. Examinees will need to demonstrate how familiar they are with Business Impact Analysis, system resiliency, Business Continuity Plans, and Disaster Recovery Plans. These skills show the candidates' expertise in coming up with solutions that ensure business continuity in case something doesn't work as planned. This chapter also asks candidates to demonstrate that they know how to manage Common Technology components, master data governance, and end-user computing. Besides, they should be experienced in handling IT Service Level Agreements and Database Management. Applicants should also find the correct answer to questions related to Problem and Incident as well as Systems Performance Management.

The final topic handles information asset protection. Exam-takers should demonstrate that they understand how privacy principles work or if they are able to ensure network and end-point security. Also, they should be experienced in managing virtualization environments and work with Public Key Infrastructure. It is also essential that examinees understand how to manage Physical Access and Environmental controls as well as manage information asset security frameworks, guidelines, and standards. They should also know how to handle different security techniques dedicated to testing and monitoring. Besides, candidates should be proficient in managing incident response and handle evidence collection & forensics.

NEW QUESTION 368
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for conducting parallel testing?

  • A. To enable comprehensive unit and system testing
  • B. To ensure the new system meets user requirements
  • C. To highlight errors in the program interfaces with files
  • D. To determine if the system is cost-effective

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The purpose of parallel testing is to ensure that the implementation of a new system will meet user requirements. Parallel testing may show that the old system is, in fact, better than the new system, but this is not the primary reason. Unit and system are completed before parallel testing. Program interfaces with files are tested for errors during system testing.

 

NEW QUESTION 369
Which of the following BEST measures project progress?

  • A. Earned-value analysis (EVA)
  • B. SWOT analysis
  • C. Project plan
  • D. Gantt chart

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 370
Which of the following type of a computer network covers a limited area such as a home, office or campus?

  • A. LAN
  • B. WAN
  • C. SAN
  • D. PAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A local area network (LAN) is a computer network that interconnects computers within a limited area such as a home, school, computer laboratory, or office building using network media.
For your exam you should know below information about computer networks:
Local Area Network (LAN)
A local area network (LAN) is a computer network that interconnects computers within a limited area such as a home, school, computer laboratory, or office building using network media.
Local Area Network

Click HERE for original source of image
Wide Area Network
A wide area network (WAN) is a network that covers a broad area (i.e., any telecommunications network that links across metropolitan, regional, national or international boundaries) using leased telecommunication lines.
Wide Area Network

Source of image: http://www.netprivateer.com/images/lanwan.gif
Metropolitan Area Network
A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network in which two or more computers or communicating devices or networks which are geographically separated but in same metropolitan city and are connected to each other are said to be connected on MAN. Metropolitan limits are determined by local municipal corporations; the larger the city, the bigger the MAN, the smaller a metro city, smaller the MAN Metropolitan Area Network

Source of image: http://cis.msjc.edu/courses/images/MAN.jpg
Personal Area Network
A personal area network (PAN) is a computer network used for data transmission among devices such as computers, telephones and personal digital assistants. PANs can be used for communication among the personal devices themselves (intrapersonal communication), or for connecting to a higher level network and the Internet (an uplink).
Personal Area Network

Click HERE for original image
Storage Area Network
A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated network that provides access to consolidated, block level data storage. SANs are primarily used to enhance storage devices, such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes, accessible to servers so that the devices appear like locally attached devices to the operating system. A SAN typically has its own network of storage devices that are generally not accessible through the local area network (LAN) by other devices.
Storage Area Network

Source of image: http://www.imexresearch.com/images/sasnassan-3.gif
The following were incorrect answers:
PAN - A personal area network (PAN) is a computer network used for data transmission among devices such as computers, telephones and personal digital assistants. PANs can be used for communication among the personal devices themselves (intrapersonal communication), or for connecting to a higher level network and the Internet (an uplink).
WAN - A wide area network (WAN) is a network that covers a broad area (i.e., any telecommunications network that links across metropolitan, regional, national or international boundaries) using leased telecommunication lines.
SAN - A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated network that provides access to consolidated, block level data storage. SANs are primarily used to enhance storage devices, such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes, accessible to servers so that the devices appear like locally attached devices to the operating system. A SAN typically has its own network of storage devices that are generally not accessible through the local area network (LAN) by other devices.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 258

 

NEW QUESTION 371
Which of the following provides the strongest authentication for physical access control?

  • A. Key verification
  • B. Sign-in logs
  • C. Dynamic passwords
  • D. Biometrics

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Biometrics can be used to provide excellent physical access control.

 

NEW QUESTION 372
To verify that the correct version of a data file was used for a production run, an IS auditor should review:

  • A. output distribution reports.
  • B. operator work schedules.
  • C. operator problem reports.
  • D. system logs.

Answer: D

Explanation:
System logs are automated reports which identify most of the activities performed on the computer. Programs that analyze the system log have been developed to report on specifically defined items. The auditor can then carry out tests to ensure that the correct file version was used for a production run. Operator problem reports are used by operators to log computer operation problems. Operator work schedules are maintained to assist in human resources planning. Output distribution reports identify all application reports generated and their distribution.

 

NEW QUESTION 373
Due to the increasing size of a database, user access times and daily backups continue to increase. Which of the following would be the BEST way to address this situation?

  • A. Data visualization
  • B. Data purging
  • C. Data mining
  • D. Data modeling

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 374
A computer system is no more secure than the human systems responsible for its operation. Malicious individuals have regularly penetrated well-designed, secure computer systems by taking advantage of the carelessness of trusted individuals, or by deliberately deceiving them.
zombie computers are being HEAVILY relied upon on by which of the following types of attack?

  • A. ATP
  • B. DDoS
  • C. None of the choices.
  • D. Social Engineering
  • E. DoS
  • F. Eavedropping

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks are common, where a large number of compromised hosts (""zombie computers"") are used to flood a target system with network requests, thus attempting to render it unusable through resource exhaustion.

 

NEW QUESTION 375
With the help of a security officer, granting access to data is the responsibility of:

  • A. librarians.
  • B. data owners.
  • C. programmers.
  • D. system analysts.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Data owners are responsible for the use of datA . Written authorization for users to gain access to computerized information should be provided by the data owners. Security administration with the owners' approval sets up access rules stipulating which users or group of users are authorized to access data or files and the level of authorized access (e.g., read or update).

 

NEW QUESTION 376
Which of the following layer of an OSI model encapsulates packets into frames?

  • A. Data Link Layer
  • B. Physical Layer
    .
  • C. Network Layer
  • D. Transport Layer

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support
Explanation/Reference:
The data link layer provides error-free transfer of data frames from one node to another over the physical
layer, allowing layers above it to assume virtually error-free transmission over the link.
For your exam you should know below information about OSI model:
The Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI) is a conceptual model that characterizes and standardizes
the internal functions of a communication system by partitioning it into abstraction layers. The model is a
product of the Open Systems Interconnection project at the International Organization for Standardization
(ISO), maintained by the identification ISO/IEC 7498-1.
The model groups communication functions into seven logical layers. A layer serves the layer above it and
is served by the layer below it. For example, a layer that provides error-free communications across a
network provides the path needed by applications above it, while it calls the next lower layer to send and
receive packets that make up the contents of that path. Two instances at one layer are connected by a
horizontal.
OSI Model

PHYSICAL LAYER
The physical layer, the lowest layer of the OSI model, is concerned with the transmission and reception of
the unstructured raw bit stream over a physical medium. It describes the electrical/optical, mechanical, and
functional interfaces to the physical medium, and carries the signals for all of the higher layers. It provides:
Data encoding: modifies the simple digital signal pattern (1s and 0s) used by the PC to better
accommodate the characteristics of the physical medium, and to aid in bit and frame synchronization. It
determines:
What signal state represents a binary 1
How the receiving station knows when a "bit-time" starts
How the receiving station delimits a frame
DATA LINK LAYER
The data link layer provides error-free transfer of data frames from one node to another over the physical
layer, allowing layers above it to assume virtually error-free transmission over the link. To do this, the data
link layer provides:
Link establishment and termination: establishes and terminates the logical link between two nodes.
Frame traffic control: tells the transmitting node to "back-off" when no frame buffers are available.
Frame sequencing: transmits/receives frames sequentially.
Frame acknowledgment: provides/expects frame acknowledgments. Detects and recovers from errors that
occur in the physical layer by retransmitting non-acknowledged frames and handling duplicate frame
receipt.
Frame delimiting: creates and recognizes frame boundaries.
Frame error checking: checks received frames for integrity.
Media access management: determines when the node "has the right" to use the physical medium.
NETWORK LAYER
The network layer controls the operation of the subnet, deciding which physical path the data should take
based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors. It provides:
Routing: routes frames among networks.
Subnet traffic control: routers (network layer intermediate systems) can instruct a sending station to
"throttle back" its frame transmission when the router's buffer fills up.
Frame fragmentation: if it determines that a downstream router's maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is
less than the frame size, a router can fragment a frame for transmission and re-assembly at the destination
station.
Logical-physical address mapping: translates logical addresses, or names, into physical addresses.
Subnet usage accounting: has accounting functions to keep track of frames forwarded by subnet
intermediate systems, to produce billing information.
Communications Subnet
The network layer software must build headers so that the network layer software residing in the subnet
intermediate systems can recognize them and use them to route data to the destination address.
This layer relieves the upper layers of the need to know anything about the data transmission and
intermediate switching technologies used to connect systems. It establishes, maintains and terminates
connections across the intervening communications facility (one or several intermediate systems in the
communication subnet).
In the network layer and the layers below, peer protocols exist between a node and its immediate neighbor,
but the neighbor may be a node through which data is routed, not the destination station. The source and
destination stations may be separated by many intermediate systems.
TRANSPORT LAYER
The transport layer ensures that messages are delivered error-free, in sequence, and with no losses or
duplications. It relieves the higher layer protocols from any concern with the transfer of data between them
and their peers.
The size and complexity of a transport protocol depends on the type of service it can get from the network
layer. For a reliable network layer with virtual circuit capability, a minimal transport layer is required. If the
network layer is unreliable and/or only supports datagram's, the transport protocol should include extensive
error detection and recovery.
The transport layer provides:
Message segmentation: accepts a message from the (session) layer above it, splits the message into
smaller units (if not already small enough), and passes the smaller units down to the network layer. The
transport layer at the destination station reassembles the message.
Message acknowledgment: provides reliable end-to-end message delivery with acknowledgments.
Message traffic control: tells the transmitting station to "back-off" when no message buffers are available.
Session multiplexing: multiplexes several message streams, or sessions onto one logical link and keeps
track of which messages belong to which sessions (see session layer).
Typically, the transport layer can accept relatively large messages, but there are strict message size limits
imposed by the network (or lower) layer. Consequently, the transport layer must break up the messages
into smaller units, or frames, pretending a header to each frame.
The transport layer header information must then include control information, such as message start and
message end flags, to enable the transport layer on the other end to recognize message boundaries. In
addition, if the lower layers do not maintain sequence, the transport header must contain sequence
information to enable the transport layer on the receiving end to get the pieces back together in the right
order before handing the received message up to the layer above.
End-to-end layers
Unlike the lower "subnet" layers whose protocol is between immediately adjacent nodes, the transport layer
and the layers above are true "source to destination" or end-to-end layers, and are not concerned with the
details of the underlying communications facility. Transport layer software (and software above it) on the
source station carries on a conversation with similar software on the destination station by using message
headers and control messages.
SESSION LAYER
The session layer allows session establishment between processes running on different stations. It
provides:
Session establishment, maintenance and termination: allows two application processes on different
machines to establish, use and terminate a connection, called a session.
Session support: performs the functions that allow these processes to communicate over the network,
performing security, name recognition, logging, and so on.
PRESENTATION LAYER
The presentation layer formats the data to be presented to the application layer. It can be viewed as the
translator for the network. This layer may translate data from a format used by the application layer into a
common format at the sending station, then translate the common format to a format known to the
application layer at the receiving station.
The presentation layer provides:
Character code translation: for example, ASCII to EBCDIC.
Data conversion: bit order, CR-CR/LF, integer-floating point, and so on.
Data compression: reduces the number of bits that need to be transmitted on the network.
Data encryption: encrypt data for security purposes. For example, password encryption.
APPLICATION LAYER
The application layer serves as the window for users and application processes to access network
services. This layer contains a variety of commonly needed functions:
Resource sharing and device redirection
Remote file access
Remote printer access
Inter-process communication
Network management
Directory services
Electronic messaging (such as mail)
Network virtual terminals
The following were incorrect answers:
Transport layer - The transport layer ensures that messages are delivered error-free, in sequence, and with
no losses or duplications. It relieves the higher layer protocols from any concern with the transfer of data
between them and their peers.
Network layer - The network layer controls the operation of the subnet, deciding which physical path the
data should take based on network conditions, priority of service, and other factors.
Physical Layer - The physical layer, the lowest layer of the OSI model, is concerned with the transmission
and reception of the unstructured raw bit stream over a physical medium. It describes the electrical/optical,
mechanical, and functional interfaces to the physical medium, and carries the signals for all of the higher
layers.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 260

 

NEW QUESTION 377
The computer security incident response team (CSIRT) of an organization disseminates detailed descriptions of recent threats. An IS auditor's GREATEST concern should be that the users might:

  • A. use this information to launch attacks.
  • B. implement individual solutions.
  • C. fail to understand the threat.
  • D. forward the security alert.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An organization's computer security incident response team (CSIRT) should disseminate recent threats, security guidelines and security updates to the users to assist them in understanding the security risk of errors and omissions. However, this introduces the risk that the users may use this information to launch attacks, directly or indirectly. An IS auditor should ensure that the CSIRT is actively involved with users to assist them in mitigation of risks arising from security failures and to prevent additional security incidents resulting from the same threat. Forwarding the security alert is not harmful to the organization, implementing individual solutions is unlikely and users failing to understand the threat would not be a serious concern.

 

NEW QUESTION 378
.What influences decisions regarding criticality of assets?

  • A. Internal corporate politics
  • B. The business criticality of the data to be protected
  • C. The business criticality of the data to be protected, and the scope of the impact upon the organization as a whole
  • D. The business impact analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:
Criticality of assets is often influenced by the business criticality of the data to be protected and by the scope of the impact upon the organization as a whole. For example, the loss of a network backbone creates a much greater impact on the organization as a whole than the loss of data on a typical user's workstation.

 

NEW QUESTION 379
To reduce the possibility of losing data during processing, the FIRST point at which control totals should be implemented is:

  • A. during the return of the data to the user department.
  • B. between related computer runs.
  • C. during data preparation.
  • D. in transit to the computer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
During data preparation is the best answer, because it establishes control at the earliest point.

 

NEW QUESTION 380
Which of the following BEST indicates to an IS auditor that an IT-related project will deliver value to the organization?

  • A. Competitors are considering similar IT-based solutions.
  • B. The project will use existing infrastructure to deliver services.
  • C. Requirements are based on stakeholder expectations.
  • D. The cost of the project is within the organization's risk appetite.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 381
What can be very helpful to an IS auditor when determining the efficacy of a systems maintenance
program?

  • A. Help-desk utilization trend reports
  • B. Administration activity reports
  • C. Network-monitoring software
  • D. A system downtime log

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
A system downtime log can be very helpful to an IS auditor when determining the efficacy of a systems
maintenance program.

 

NEW QUESTION 382
By evaluating application development projects against the capability maturity model (CMM), an IS auditor should be able to verify that:

  • A. predictable software processes are followed.
  • B. reliable products are guaranteed.
  • C. programmers' efficiency is improved.
  • D. security requirements are designed.

Answer: A

Explanation:
By evaluating the organization's development projects against the CMM, an IS auditor determines whether the development organization follows a stable, predictable software process. Although the likelihood of success should increase as the software processes mature toward the optimizing level, mature processes do not guarantee a reliable product. CMM does not evaluate technical processes such as programming nor does it evaluate security requirements or other application controls.

 

NEW QUESTION 383
......

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