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PRMIA PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition Sample Questions:

1. For a FX forward contract, what would be the worst time for a counterparty to default (in terms of the maximum likely credit exposure)

A) At maturity
B) Roughly three-quarters of the way towards maturity
C) Right after inception
D) Indeterminate from the given information

2. Which of the following formulae describes CVA (Credit Valuation Adjustment)? All acronyms have their usual meanings (LGD=Loss Given Default, ENE=Expected Negative Exposure, EE=Expected Exposure, PD=Probability of Default, EPE=Expected Positive Exposure, PFE=Potential Future Exposure)

A) LGD * EPE * PD
B) LGD * PFE * PD
C) LGD * ENE * PD
D) LGD * EE * PD

3. The unexpected loss for a credit portfolio at a given VaR estimate is defined as:

A) Actual Loss - VaR
B) max(Actual Loss - Expected Loss, 0)
C) Actual Loss - Expected Loss
D) VaR - Expected Loss

4. Which of the following is true in relation to a Contingency Funding Plan (CFP)?
I. A CFP is like a disaster recovery plan to deal with a liquidity crisis II. A CFP should consider market stress conditions, but failures of payment systems are not relevant as they fall under the remit of operational risk III. Reputational damage may result if the market finds out that a firm has had to execute its CFP IV. Sources of emergency funding considered in the CFP should include the role of the central bank as the lender of last resort

A) II and IV
B) IV
C) I and III
D) I, II and III

5. A stock that follows the Weiner process has its future price determined by:

A) its standard deviation and past technical movements
B) its expected return and standard deviation
C) its current price, expected return and standard deviation
D) its expected return alone

Solutions: